TITLE 37. PUBLIC SAFETY AND CORRECTIONS

PART 5. TEXAS BOARD OF PARDONS AND PAROLES

CHAPTER 145. PAROLE

SUBCHAPTER A. PAROLE PROCESS

37 TAC §§145.3, 145.12, 145.13, 145.15, 145.18

The Texas Board of Pardons and Paroles proposes amendments to 37 TAC Chapter 145, §§145.3, 145.12, 145.13, 145.15, and 145.18 concerning the policy statements relating to parole release decisions by the Board of Pardons and Paroles. The amendments are proposed to incorporate the new statutory language from Senate Bill 1506 89th Legislative Session regarding the reconsideration of parole after the first anniversary date of denial.

Marsha Moberley, Chair of the Board, determined that for each year of the first five-year period the proposed amendments are in effect, no fiscal implications exist for state or local government as a result of enforcing or administering this section.

Ms. Moberley also has determined that for each year of the first five years the proposed amendments are in effect, the public benefit anticipated as a result of enforcing the amendments will be to reduce the number of times victims will be notified of the parole panel's reconsideration of an offender's parole review. There will be no effect on small businesses, micro-businesses or rural areas. There is no anticipated economic cost to persons required to comply with the amended rule as proposed. No regulatory flexibility analysis required by HB 3430 is necessary.

An Economic Impact Statement and Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required because the proposed amendments will not have an economic effect on micro-businesses, small businesses, or rural communities as defined in Texas Government Code, Section 2006.001(2).

Government Growth Impact Statement. In compliance with Texas Government Code §2001.0221, the Board has prepared a government growth impact statement. Unless indicated below, for each year of the first five years that the rule will be in effect, the rule will not: create or eliminate a government program; require the creation of new employee positions or the elimination of existing employee positions; require an increase or decrease in future legislative appropriations to the agency; lead to an increase or decrease in the fees paid to the department, create new regulations; expand, limit or repeal existing regulations; increase or decrease the number of individuals subject to the rule's applicability, or positively or adversely affect this state's economy.

Comments should be directed to Bettie Wells, General Counsel, Texas Board of Pardons and Paroles, 209 W. 14th Street, Suite 500, Austin, Texas 78701, or by e-mail to bettie.wells@tdcj.state.tx.us. Written comments from the general public should be received within 30 days of the publication of this proposal.

The amended rule is proposed under §§508.036 and 508.0441, Texas Government Code. Section 508.036 requires the board to adopt rules relating to the decision-making processes used by the board and parole panels; and §508.0441 provides the board with the authority to consider and order release on parole or mandatory supervision.

No other statutes, articles or codes are affected by these amendments.

§ 145.3. Policy Statements Relating to Parole Release Decisions by the Board of Pardons and Paroles.

To aid the Board in its analysis and research of parole release, the Board adopts the following policies.

(1) Release to parole is a privilege, not an offender right, and the parole decision maker is vested with complete discretion to grant, or to deny parole release as defined by statutory law.

(A) Candidates for parole are evaluated on an individual basis.

(B) There are no mandatory rules or guidelines that must be followed in every case because each offender is unique. The Board and Parole Commissioners have the statutory duty to make release decisions, which are only in the best interest of society. The Board and parole panels use parole guidelines as a tool to aid in the discretionary parole decision process.

(2) The Board will reconsider for release an offender who is [, other than an offender] serving a sentence under Section 481.115, Health and Safety Code, involving a controlled substance listed in Penalty Group 1, or an offense under Section 481.1151, 481.116, 481.1161, 481.117, 481.118, or 481.121 of that code, [for an offense listed in Section 508.149(a), Government Code] as soon as practicable after the first anniversary of the date of denial.

(3) The Board will reconsider an offender for release [an offender who is serving a sentence for an offense under Section 508.149(a), Government code or an offense punishable as a second or third degree felony under Section 22.04, Penal Code,] after the first anniversary date of the denial and end before the fifth anniversary date of denial[, but in no event shall it be less than one (1) calendar year from the panel decision date].

(4) The Board will reconsider for release an offender who is serving a sentence for an offense under Section 22.021, Penal Code; or serving a life sentence for a capital felony, who is eligible for parole, after the first anniversary of the date of the denial and before the 10th anniversary of the date of denial.

(5) An offender will be considered for parole when eligible and when the offender meets the following criteria with regard to behavior during incarceration.

(A) Other than on initial parole eligibility, the offender must not have had a major disciplinary misconduct report in the six month period prior to the date he is reviewed for parole, which has resulted in loss of good conduct time or reduction to a classification status below that assigned during that offender's initial entry into the TDCJ-CID.

(B) Other than on initial parole eligibility, at the time he is reviewed for parole the person must be classified in the same or higher time earning classification assigned during that person's initial entry into TDCJ-CID.

(C) If any offender who has received an affirmative vote to parole and following the vote, notification is received that the offender has been reduced below initial classification status or has lost good conduct time, the parole decision will be reviewed and revoted by the parole panel that rendered the decision.

(D) A person who has been revoked and returned to custody for a violation of the conditions of release to parole or mandatory supervision will be considered for release to parole or mandatory supervision when eligible.

(E) An offender who is otherwise eligible for parole and who has charges pending alleging a felony offense committed while in the TDCJ, any facility under its supervision, or a facility under contract with the TDCJ, and for which a complaint has been filed with a magistrate of the State of Texas, will not be considered for release to parole.

(F) An offender who is otherwise eligible for release and meets the criteria for Medically Recommended Intensive Supervision (MRIS) as required by §508.146, Government Code may be considered for release on parole.

(6) Any consideration by a Board Member or Parole Commissioner of an offender's litigation activities when determining an offender's candidacy for parole is strictly prohibited. No offender will be denied the opportunity to present to the judiciary, including appellate courts, his or her allegations concerning violations of fundamental constitutional rights. Any consideration of such legal activity during the parole review, supervision or revocation process is a violation of Board policy. In the event parole is denied in violation of this section, the offender may pursue a remedy under the special review provisions of §145.17 of this title (relating to Action upon Special Review--Release Denied). In the event parole or mandatory supervision is revoked in violation of this section, the offender may pursue a remedy under the motion to reopen hearing provisions of §146.11 of this title (relating to Releasee's Motion to Reopen Hearing or Reinstate Supervision).

§ 145.12. Action upon Review.

A case reviewed by a parole panel for parole consideration may be:

(1) deferred for request and receipt of further information;

(2) denied a favorable parole action at this time and set for review on a future specific month and year (Set-Off).

(A) The next review date (Month/Year) for an offender [serving a sentence listed in Section 508.149(a), Government Code, or serving a sentence for second or third degree felony under Section 22.04, Penal Code] may be set at any date after the first anniversary of the date of denial and end before the fifth anniversary of the date of denial; or [,]

(B) If the offender is serving a sentence under Section 481.115, Health and Safety Code, involving a controlled substance listed in Penalty Group 1, or an offense under Section 481.1151, 481.116, 481.1161, 481.117, 481.118, or 481.121, the next review date (Month/Year) may begin as soon as practicable after the first anniversary of the date of denial; or

(C) If the offender [unless the inmate] is serving a sentence for an offense under Section 22.021, Penal Code, or a life sentence for a capital felony, the next review date begins [in which event the designated month must begin] after the first anniversary of the date of the denial and ends before the 10th anniversary of the date of denial. [The next review date for an offender serving a sentence not listed in Section 508.149(a), Government Code shall be as soon as practicable after the first anniversary of the denial;]

(3) denied parole and ordered serve all, but in no event shall this be utilized if the offender's projected release date is greater than five (5) years. [for offenders serving sentences listed in Section 508.149(a), Government Code, or serving a sentence for second or third degree felony under Section 22.04 Penal Code; or greater than one (1) year for offenders not serving sentences listed in Section 508.149(a), Government Code.] If the serve-all date in effect on the date of the panel decision is extended by more than 180 days, the case shall be placed in regular parole review;

(4) determined the totality of the circumstances favor the offender's release on parole, further investigation (FI) is ordered with the following available voting options; and, impose all conditions of parole or release to mandatory supervision that the parole panel is required or authorized by law to impose as a condition of parole or release to mandatory supervision;

(A) FI-1--Release the offender when eligible;

(B) FI-2 (Month/Year)--Release on a specified future date;

(C) FI-3 R (Month/Year)"--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and not earlier than three (3) months from specified date. Such TDCJ program may include either CHANGES, Voyager, Pre-Release Center (PRC), or any other approved program;

(D) FI-4 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and not earlier than four (4) months from specified date. Such TDCJ program shall be the Sex Offender Education Program (SOEP);

(E) FI-5--Transfer to In-Prison Therapeutic Community Program (IPTC). Release to aftercare component only after completion of IPTC program;

(F) FI-6--Transfer to a TDCJ DWI Program. Release to continuum of care program as required by paragraph (5) of this section;

(G) FI-6 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and no earlier than six (6) months from specified date. Such TDCJ program may include the Pre-Release Therapeutic Community (PRTC), Pre-Release Substance Abuse Program (PRSAP), or In-Prison Therapeutic Community Program, or any other approved program;

(H) FI-7 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and not earlier than seven (7) months from the specified date. Such TDCJ program shall be the Serious and Violent Offender Reentry Initiative (SVORI);

(I) FI-9 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and not earlier than nine (9) months from specified date. Such TDCJ program shall be the Sex Offender Treatment Program (SOTP-9);

(J) FI-18 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation treatment program. Release to parole only after program completion and no earlier than 18 months from specified date. Such TDCJ program 30 shall be the Sex Offender Treatment Program (SOTP-18);

(5) any person released to parole after completing a TDCJ rehabilitation program as a prerequisite for parole, must participate in and complete any required post-release program. A parole panel shall require as a condition of release on parole or release to mandatory supervision that an offender who immediately before release is a participant in the program established under Section 501.0931, Government Code, participate as a releasee in a drug or alcohol abuse continuum of care treatment program; or

(6) any offender receiving an FI vote, as listed in paragraph (4)(A) - (J) of this section, shall be placed in a program consistent with the vote. If treatment program managers recommend a different program for an offender, a transmittal shall be forwarded to the parole panel requesting approval to place the offender in a different program.

§ 145.13. Action upon Review; Consecutive (Cumulative) Felony Sentencing.

(a) This section applies only to an offender sentenced to serve consecutive sentences if each sentence in the series is for an offense committed on or after September 1, 1987.

(b) A parole panel shall review for parole consideration consecutive felony sentencing cases as determined and in the sequence submitted by the TDCJ.

(c) If the case under parole consideration is a pre-final consecutive felony sentencing case, the parole panel may:

(1) defer for request and receipt of further information;

(2) vote CU/FI (Month/Year Cause Number), designate the date on which the offender would have been eligible for release on parole if the offender had been sentenced to serve a single sentence. This date shall be within a three-year incarceration period following the panel decision; or

(3) vote CU/NR (Month/Year Cause Number), deny favorable parole action. [and set the next review date at one year from the panel decision date . If the offender is serving an offense under Section 508.149(a), Government Code, or second or third degree under Section 22.04, Penal Code; the] The next review date (month/year) may be set at any date in the five-year incarceration period following the panel decision date, but in no event shall it be less than one (1) calendar from the panel decision date; or

(4) vote CU/NR (Month/Year Cause Number), deny favorable parole action. If the offender is serving a sentence for an offense under Section 481.115, Health and Safety Code, involving a controlled substance listed in Penalty Group 1, or an offense under Section 481.1151, 481.116, 481.1161, 481.117, 481.118, or 481.121 of that code, begin as soon as practicable after the first anniversary of the denial; or

(5) [(4)] vote CU/SA (Month/Year Cause Number): [If the offender is serving an offense under Section 508.149(a), Government Code, or second or third degree under Section 22.04, Penal Code] deny release and order serve-all, but in no event shall this be utilized if the offender's maximum expiration date is over five (5) years from the date of the panel decision. [If the offender is not serving an offense under Section 508.149(a), Government Code, deny] Deny release and order serve-all, but in no event shall this be utilized if the offender's maximum expiration date is over one (1) year from the date of the panel decision.

(d) If the case under parole consideration is the last and final in a series of consecutive felony sentencing cases, the case shall be 31 reviewed under §145.12 of this title (relating to Action upon Review).

(e) When a parole panel reviews for parole consideration a consecutive felony sentencing case, the parole panel shall indicate the Cause Number of the consecutive felony sentencing case it is considering.

§ 145.15. Action upon Review; Extraordinary Vote (SB 45).

(a) This section applies to any offender convicted of or serving a sentence for a capital felony, other than a life sentence, an offense under Sections 20A.03, 21.02, or 21.11(a)(1), Penal Code, or who is required under Section 508.145(c), Government Code to serve 35 calendar years before becoming eligible for parole review. All members of the Board shall vote on the release of an eligible offender. At least two-thirds of the members must vote favorably for the offender to be released to parole. Members of the Board shall not vote until they receive and review a copy of a written report from the department on the probability of the offender committing an offense after being released.

(1) Upon review, use of the full range of voting options is not conducive to determining whether two-thirds of the Board considers the offender ready for release to parole.

(2) If it is determined circumstances favor the offender's release to parole the Board has the following voting options available:

(A) FI-1--Release the offender when eligible;

(B) FI-4 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and not earlier than four (4) months from specified date. Such TDCJ program shall be the Sex Offender Education Program (SOEP);

(C) FI-9 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and not earlier than nine (9) months from specified date. Such TDCJ program shall be the Sex Offender Treatment Program (SOTP-9); or

(D) FI-18 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation treatment program. Release to parole only after program completion and no earlier than eighteen months from the specified date. Such TDCJ program may include the Sex Offender Treatment Program (SOTP-18. In no event shall the specified date be set more than three (3) years from the current panel decision date.

(3) If it is determined that circumstances do not support a favorable action upon review, the following options are available:

(A) NR (Month/Year)--Deny release and set the next review date for 36 or 60 months following the panel decision date; or

(B) SA--The offender's minimum or maximum expiration date is less than 60 months away. The offender will continue to serve their sentence until that date.

(b) If the offender is sentenced to serve consecutive sentences and each sentence in the series is for an offense committed on or after September 1, 1987, the following voting options are available to the Board panel:

(1) CU/FI (Month/Year-Cause Number)--A favorable parole action that designates the date an offender would have been released if the offender had been sentenced to serve a single sentence;

(2) CU/NR (Month/Year-Cause Number)-- Deny release and set the next review date for 36 or 60 months following the panel decision date; or

(3) CU/SA (Month/Year-Cause Number)-- Deny release and order serve-all if the offender is within 60 months of their maximum expiration date.

(c) Some offenders are eligible for consideration for release to Discretionary Mandatory Supervision if the sentence is for an offense committed on or after September 1, 1996. Prior to the offender reaching the projected release date, the voting options are the same as those listed in subsections (a) and (b) of this section. If the TDCJ-CID determines that release of the offender will occur because the offender will reach the projected release date, the case shall be referred to a three-member parole panel within 30 days of the offender's projected release date for consideration for release to mandatory supervision using the following options:

(1) RMS--Release to mandatory supervision; or

(2) DMS (Month/Year)--Deny release to mandatory supervision and set for review on a future specific month and year. The next mandatory supervision review date shall be set one (1) year from the panel decision date.

(d) The [Upon review of any eligible offender who qualifies for release to Medically Recommended Intensive Supervision (MRIS), the] MRIS panel shall review identified offender's cases that meet MRIS criteria established by statute and defined by TCOOMMI [initially vote to either recommend or deny MRIS consideration. The MRIS panel shall base this decision on the offender's medical condition and medical evaluation, and shall determine whether the offender constitutes a threat to public safety].

(1) The [If the] MRIS panel shall determine whether [determines] the identified offender constitutes [does constitute] a threat to public safety[, no further voting is required].

(2) The MRIS panel shall consider the following factors when making their determination:

(A) Criminal History.

(B) Disciplinary, behavioral, rehabilitative, and medical compliance.

(C) Victim/Trial Official information.

(D) Nature and onset of medical condition.

(E) Required medical treatment and care.

(F) Individual diagnosis to include likelihood of recovery.

(G) Any other relevant information.

(3) [(2)] The MRS panel shall use one of the following voting options: [If the MRIS panel determines the offender does not constitute a threat to public safety, the case shall be sent to the full Board, which shall determine whether to approve or deny the offender's release to parole. The following voting options are available to the Board:]

(A) Approve MRIS--The MRIS panel shall provide appropriate reasons for the decision to approve MRIS. The MRIS panel [Board] shall vote F1-1 and impose special condition "O.35." This condition specifies that the ["O" - "The] offender shall comply with the terms and conditions of the MRIS program and abide by the [a Texas Correctional Office for Offenders with Mental or Medical Impairments] (TCOOMMI)-approved release plan. At any time this condition is in effect, an offender shall remain under the care of a physician and in a medically suitable placement"; the Board shall provide appropriate reasons for the decision to approve MRIS;] or

(B) Deny MRIS--The MRIS panel [Board] shall provide appropriate reasons for the decision to deny MRIS.

(4) [(3)] The decision to approve release to MRIS for an identified offender remains in effect until specifically withdrawn by a MRIS panel or the identified offender's status is revoked and returned to TDCJ-CID [the Board].

(5) When TCOOMMI and CMHC determine the MRIS offender's medical condition has improved such that the offender is no longer MRIS eligible, and the original parole eligibility date (PED) has been met, the MRIS panel may:

(A) withdraw the MRIS special condition, or

(B) continue the MRIS condition in effect; or

(C) impose any other condition the MRIS panel deems appropriate.

(6) If the MRIS offender violates their conditions of release that result in the issuance of a pre-revocation warrant, the MRIS offender shall adhere to the established pre-revocation process. However, the final determination of the MRIS offender shall be addressed by the MRIS panel.

(7) The MRIS panel shall endeavor to complete the voting of each terminally ill offender referral within 10 business days of receipt from TCOOMMI and all other referrals within 20 business days.

(e) If a request for a special review meets the criteria set forth in §145.17(f) of this title (relating to Action upon Special Review--Release Denied), the offender's case shall be sent to the special review panel.

(1) The special review panel may take action as set forth in §145.17(i) of this title.

(2) When the special review panel decides the offender's case warrants a special review, the case shall be re-voted by the full Board. The Presiding Officer shall determine the order of the voting panel. Voting options are the same as those in subsections (a) - (c) of this section.

§ 145.18. Action upon Review; Extraordinary Vote (HB 1914).

(a) This section applies to any offender convicted of or serving a sentence for a capital felony, other than a life sentence, who is eligible for parole, or convicted of or serving sentence for an offense under Section 22.021, Penal Code. All members of the Board shall vote on the release of an eligible offender. At least two-thirds of the members must vote favorably for the offender to be released to parole. Members of the Board shall not vote until they receive and review a copy of a written report from the TDCJ on the probability of the offender committing an offense after being released.

(1) Upon review, use of the full range of voting options is not conducive to determining whether two-thirds of the Board considers the offender ready for release to parole.

(2) If it is determined circumstances favor the offender's release to parole the Board has the following voting options available:

(A) FI-1--Release the offender when eligible;

(B) FI-4 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and not earlier than four (4) months from specified date. Such TDCJ program shall be the Sex Offender Education Program (SOEP);

(C) FI-9 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation program. Release to parole only after program completion and not earlier than nine (9) months from specified date. Such TDCJ program shall be the Sex Offender Treatment Program (SOTP-9); or

(D) FI-18 R (Month/Year)--Transfer to a TDCJ rehabilitation treatment program. Release to parole only after program completion and no earlier than eighteen months from the specified date. Such TDCJ program may include the Sex Offender Treatment Program (SOTP-18. In no event shall the specified date be set more than three (3) years from the current panel decision date.

(3) If it is determined that circumstances do not support a favorable action upon review, the following options are available:

(A) NR (Month/Year)--Deny release and set the next review date for 36 or 60, 84 or 120 months following the panel decision date; or

(B) SA--The offender's minimum or maximum expiration date is less than 120 months away. The offender will continue to serve their sentence until that date.

(b) If the offender is sentenced to serve consecutive sentences and each sentence in the series is for an offense committed on or after September 1, 1987, the following voting options are available to the Board panel:

(1) CU/FI (Month/Year-Cause Number)--A favorable parole action that designates the date an offender would have been released if the offender had been sentenced to serve a single sentence;

(2) CU/NR (Month/Year-Cause Number)--Deny release and set the next review date for 36 or 60 months following the panel decision date; or

(3) CU/SA (Month/Year-Cause Number)--Deny release and order serve-all if the offender is within 60 months of their maximum expiration date.

(c) Some offenders are eligible for consideration for release to Discretionary Mandatory Supervision if the sentence is for an offense committed on or after September 1, 1996. Prior to the offender reaching the projected release date, the voting options are the same as those listed in subsections (a) and (b) of this section. If the TDCJ-CID determines that release of the offender will occur because the offender will reach the projected release date, the case shall be referred to a three-member parole panel within 30 days of the offender's projected release date for consideration for release to mandatory supervision using the following options:

(1) RMS--Release to mandatory supervision; or

(2) DMS (Month/Year)--Deny release to mandatory supervision and set for review on a future specific month and year. The next mandatory supervision review date shall be set one (1) year from the panel decision date.

(d) [Upon review of any eligible offender who qualifies for release to Medically Recommended Intensive Supervision (MRIS), the] MRIS panel shall review [initially vote to either recommend or deny MRIS consideration]. Identified offender's cases that meet MRIS criteria established by statute and defined by TCOOMMI. [The MRIS panel shall base this decision on the offender's medical condition and medical evaluation, and shall determine whether the offender constitutes a threat to public safety.]

(1) The [If the] MRIS panel shall determine whether [determines] the identified offender constitutes [does constitute] a threat to public safety[, no further voting is required].

(2) The MRIS panel shall consider the following factors when making their determination:

(A) Criminal History

(B) Disciplinary, behavioral, rehabilitative, and medical compliance

(C) Victim/Trial Official information

(D) Nature and onset of medical condition

(E) Required medical treatment and care

(F) Individual diagnosis to include likelihood of recovery

(G) Any other relevant information

(3) [(2)] The MRS panel shall use one of the following voting options: [If the MRIS panel determines the offender does not constitute a threat to public safety, the case shall be sent to the full Board, which shall determine whether to approve or deny the offender's release to parole. The following voting options are available to the Board:]

(A) Approve MRIS--The MRIS panel shall provide appropriate reasons for the decision to approve MRIS. The MRIS panel [Board] shall vote F1-1 and impose special condition "O.35 [O]" . This condition specifies that the [- "The] offender shall comply with the terms and conditions of the MRIS program and abide by the [a Texas Correctional Office for Offenders with Mental or Medical Impairments (]TCOOMMI[)]-approved release plan. At any time this condition is in effect, an offender shall remain under the care of a physician and in a medically suitable placement; ["; the Board shall provide appropriate reasons for the decision to approve MRIS;] or

(B) Deny MRIS--The MRIS panel [Board] shall provide appropriate reasons for the decision to deny MRIS.

(4) [(3)] The decision to approve release to MRIS for an identified offender remains in effect until specifically withdrawn by a MRIS panel or the identified offender's status is revoked and returned to TDCJ-CID [the Board].

(5) When TCOOMMI and CMHC determine the MRIS offender's medical condition has improved such that the offender is no longer MRIS eligible, and the original parole eligibility date (PED) has been met, the MRIS panel may:

(A) withdraw the MRIS special condition, or

(B) continue the MRIS condition in effect; or

(C) impose any other condition the MRIS panel deems appropriate.

(6) If the MRIS offender violates their conditions of release that result in the issuance of a pre-revocation warrant, the MRIS offender shall adhere to the established pre-revocation process. However, the final determination of the MRIS offender shall be addressed by the MRIS panel.

(7) The MRIS panel shall endeavor to complete the voting of each terminally ill offender referral within 10 business days of receipt from TCOOMMI and all other referrals within 20 business days.

(e) If a request for a special review meets the criteria set forth in §145.17(f) of this title (relating to Action upon Special Review--Release Denied), the offender's case shall be sent to the special review panel.

(1) The special review panel may take action as set forth in §145.17(i) of this title.

(2) When the special review panel decides the offender's case warrants a special review, the case shall be re-voted by the full Board. The Presiding Officer shall determine the order of the voting panel. Voting options are the same as those in subsections (a) - (c) of this section.

The agency certifies that legal counsel has reviewed the proposal and found it to be within the state agency's legal authority to adopt.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on August 18, 2025.

TRD-202502960

Bettie Wells

General Counsel

Texas Board of Pardons and Paroles

Earliest possible date of adoption: September 28, 2025

For further information, please call: (512) 406-5388


PART 15. TEXAS FORENSIC SCIENCE COMMISSION

CHAPTER 651. DNA, CODIS, FORENSIC ANALYSIS, AND CRIME LABORATORIES

SUBCHAPTER C. FORENSIC ANALYST LICENSING PROGRAM

37 TAC §651.222

The Texas Forensic Science Commission (Commission) proposes amendments to 37 Texas Administrative Code Chapter §651.222, Voluntary Forensic Analyst and Technician Licensing Requirements 1) to permit latent print analysts working in unaccredited laboratories to fulfill the International Association for Identification certification requirement for licensure through successful completion of a competency exam administered by the Texas Division of the International Association for Identification or proctor approved by the Commission; and 2) to qualify crime scene reconstruction analysts with a high school diploma or equivalent degree for licensure.

Background and Justification. The proposed amendments qualify additional latent print analysts for voluntary licensure by permitting latent print analysts working in unaccredited laboratories to take a competency exam administered by the Texas Division of the International Association for Identification or proctor approved by the Commission in lieu of a required International Association for Identification certification exam. The required certification exam is expensive and often difficult to achieve for personnel working in unaccredited crime laboratory settings, which are typically smaller law enforcement agencies without the funding necessary to sponsor candidates for supplemental trainings or certification exams. With regard to crime scene reconstruction analysts, many crime scene personnel have significant military and law enforcement experience that should qualify them for licensure in lieu of an associate's or other advanced degree. Allowing candidates for crime scene reconstruction analyst licensure who have achieved a high school diploma or equivalent degree will permit these types of candidates to qualify for voluntary licensure by the Commission.

Fiscal Impact on State and Local Government. Leigh M. Tomlin, Associate General Counsel of the Commission, has determined that for each year of the first five years the new rule is in effect, there will be no fiscal impact to state or local governments as a result of the enforcement or administration of the proposal. There is no estimated loss or increase in revenue to the state or to local governments as a result of enforcing or administering the proposed rule amendments.

Local Employment Impact Statement. The proposal has no effect on local economy; therefore, no local employment impact statement is required under Texas Government Code §2001.022.

Probable Economic Costs to Persons Required to Comply with Proposal. The proposal does not impose a cost on regulated persons, another state agency, a special district, or a local government and, therefore, is not subject to Texas Government Code §2001.0045. The licenses are voluntary licenses.

Public Benefit. Ms. Tomlin has also determined that for each year of the first five years the new rule is in effect, the anticipated public benefit is expanded eligibility for voluntary forensic analysts working in crime scene and latent print disciplines to participate in the State's regulatory license program for these disciplines. Under the current rules, latent print analyst license candidates who work in an unaccredited crime laboratory setting must take and pass the International Association for Identification's certification exam. The rule changes provide an alternative, more affordable path for these candidates to achieve licensure. With regard to the changes related to crime scene reconstruction analysts, the rule changes appropriately recognize the military and law enforcement backgrounds from candidates in lieu of the requirement for an associate's or other more advanced degree, creating an alternative path for these candidates to achieve licensure.

Fiscal Impact on Small and Micro-businesses and Rural Communities. There is no adverse economic effect anticipated for small businesses, micro-businesses, or rural communities as a result of implementing the proposed rule. Accordingly, no economic impact statement or regulatory flexibility analysis is required under Texas Government Code §2006.002(c).

Takings Impact Assessment. Ms. Tomlin has determined that no private real property interests are affected by this proposal and that this proposal does not restrict or limit an owner's right to property that would otherwise exist in the absence of government action and, therefore, does not constitute a taking or require a takings impact assessment under the Government Code §2007.043.

Government Growth Impact Statement. Ms. Tomlin has determined that for the first five-year period, implementation of the proposed amendments will have no government growth impact. Pursuant to the analysis required by Government Code 2001.221(b): (1) the proposed rule does not create or eliminate a government program; (2) implementation of the proposed rule does not require the creation of new employee positions or the elimination of existing employee positions; (3) implementation of the proposed rule does not increase or decrease future legislative appropriations to the agency; (4) the proposed rule changes do not require any fees; (5) the proposed rule does not create a new regulation; (6) the proposed rule does not expand, limit, or repeal an existing regulation; (7) the proposed rule does not increase or decrease the number of individuals subject to the rule's applicability; and (8) the proposed rule has no effect on the state's economy.

Environmental Rule Analysis. The Commission has determined that the proposed rules are not brought with specific intent to protect the environment or reduce risks to human health from environmental exposure; thus, the Commission asserts that the proposed rules are not a "major environmental rule," as defined in Government Code §2001.0225. As a result, the Commission asserts the preparation of an environmental impact analysis, as provided by §2001.0225, is not required.

Request for Public Comment. The Commission invites comments on the proposal from any member of the public. Please submit comments to Leigh M. Tomlin, 1700 North Congress Avenue, Suite 445, Austin, Texas 78701 or leigh@fsc.texas.gov. Comments must be received by October 10, 2025 to be considered by the Commission.

Statutory Authority. The rule amendments are proposed under the general rulemaking authority provided in Code of Criminal Procedure, Article 38.01 §3-a and its authority to license forensic analysts under §4-a(b).

Cross reference to statute. The proposal affects Tex. Code Crim. Proc. art. 38.01.

§ 651.222. Voluntary Forensic Analyst and Technician Licensing Requirements.

(a) Issuance. The Commission may issue an individual's forensic analyst or technician license for forensic examinations or tests not subject to accreditation under this section.

(b) Voluntary. Licensure under this section is voluntary and is not a prerequisite for practice in any of the forensic disciplines listed in this section.

(c) The following forensic disciplines are eligible for a forensic analyst or forensic technician license under this section:

(1) forensic anthropology;

(2) document examination, including document authentication, physical comparison, qualitative determination, and recovery;

(3) latent print examination, including the forensic examination of friction ridge detail from the hands and feet;

(4) latent print processing, including identifying and preserving latent prints from items obtained at a crime scene, by utilizing appropriate visual, physical, and/or chemical techniques with sequential processing to develop latent, patent, and/or plastic prints from a substrate;

(5) digital/multimedia evidence (limited to computer, mobile, vehicle, call detail records (i.e., phone carrier record comparisons to mobile device), and location detail records); and

(6) crime scene, with the following sub-disciplines:

(A) crime scene processing technician, including crime scene documentation (scene notes, photography, sketching, laser scanning), and evidence identification, collection, preservation, and submission;

(B) crime scene investigation analyst, including crime scene processing activities as well as the application of analytical techniques used for evidence triage, such as chemical and presumptive testing. It may also include the issuance of a report on crime scene documentation and/or crime scene processing;

(C) crime scene reconstruction analyst, including crime scene processing activities, crime scene investigation activities, and any forensic activities requiring the application of the scientific method to evaluate information regarding a crime scene from all reasonably available sources such as scene documentation, investigative reports, physical evidence, laboratory reports, autopsy documentation, photographs, video, and witness statements;

(D) crime scene reconstruction analyst, with specific recognition in bloodstain pattern analysis, including all crime scene reconstruction activities described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph; and

(E) crime scene reconstruction analyst, with specific recognition in shooting incident reconstruction, including crime scene reconstruction activities described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph.

(d) Application. Before being issued a forensic analyst license, an applicant shall complete and submit to the Commission a current forensic analyst license application and provide documentation that he or she has satisfied all applicable requirements set forth under this section.

(e) Minimum Education Requirements.

(1) Document Examination Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in document examination must have a baccalaureate or advanced degree from an accredited university.

(2) Forensic Anthropologist. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in forensic anthropology must be certified by the American Board of Forensic Anthropology (ABFA), including fulfillment of any minimum education requirements required to comply with and maintain ABFA certification at the time of the candidate's application for a license.

(3) Latent Print Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in latent print examination must have:

(A) A baccalaureate or advanced degree from an accredited university;

(B) 3 years of experience in latent print examination with an Associates of Arts or Associates of Science; or

(C) 4 years of experience in latent print examination and 176 hours of training that includes 16 hours of testimonial training (with only a maximum of 80 conference hours accepted as training hours).

(4) Latent Print Processing Technician. An applicant for a forensic technician license in latent print processing must have a minimum of a high school diploma or equivalent degree.

(5) Digital/Multimedia Evidence Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in digital/multimedia evidence must have:

(A) a baccalaureate or advanced degree from an accredited university;

(B) a non-law enforcement or non-military background without a baccalaureate degree, demonstrating equivalent digital skill set through Certified Forensic Computer Examiner (CFCE), Global Information Assurance Certification Certified Forensic Examination (GCFE), or Global Information Assurance Certification Certified Forensic Analyst (GCFA), or equivalent non-vendor certification examination(s) with competency test(s); or

(C) law enforcement or military experience equivalent demonstrated through forensic training through one of the following organizations: SysAdmin, Audit, Network, and Security (SANS), International Association for Computer Investigative Specialists (IACIS), National White Collar Crime Center (NW3C), Law Enforcement & Emergency Services Video Association International, Inc. (LEVA), U.S. Military, Computer Analysis Response Team (CART) (FBI Training), Seized Computer Evidence Recovery Specialist (SCERS), or U.S. Secret Service.

(6) Crime Scene Reconstruction Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in crime scene reconstruction, crime scene reconstruction with specific recognition in bloodstain pattern analysis, or crime scene reconstruction with specific recognition in shooting incident reconstruction must have a minimum of a high school diploma [an associate's degree] or equivalent degree.

(7) Crime Scene Investigation Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license limited to the crime scene investigation category of licensure must have a minimum of a high school diploma or equivalent degree.

(8) Crime Scene Processing Technician. An applicant for a forensic technician license limited to the crime scene processing technician category of licensure must have a minimum of a high school diploma or equivalent degree.

(9) Foreign/Non-U.S. degrees. The Commission shall recognize equivalent foreign, non-U.S. baccalaureate or advanced degrees. The Commission reserves the right to charge licensees a reasonable fee for credential evaluation services to assess how a particular foreign degree compares to a similar degree in the United States. The Commission may accept a previously obtained credential evaluation report from an applicant or licensee in fulfillment of the degree comparison assessment.

(f) Specific Coursework Requirements and Certification Requirements.

(1) General Requirement for Statistics. With the exception of the categories of licensure specifically exempt in this subsection, an applicant for any forensic analyst license under this section must have a three-semester credit hour (or equivalent) college-level statistics course from an accredited university or a program approved by the Commission.

(2) Forensic Discipline-Specific Coursework Requirements.

(A) Document Examination Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in document examination must have a three-semester credit hour (or equivalent) college-level statistics course from an accredited university or a program approved by the Commission. No other specific college-level coursework is required.

(B) Forensic Anthropologist. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in forensic anthropology must be certified by the American Board of Forensic Anthropology (ABFA), including fulfillment of any specific coursework requirements necessary to comply with and maintain ABFA certification at the time of the candidate's application for a license.

(C) Latent Print Analyst.

(i) An applicant for a forensic analyst license in latent print examination who qualifies for a latent print analyst license based on the minimum education requirements set forth in subsection (d)(3)(A) or (B) of this section must have a minimum of 24 semester-credit hours or equivalent in science, technology, engineering, or mathematics (STEM) related coursework.

(ii) All applicants for a forensic analyst license in latent print examination must have a three-semester credit hour (or equivalent) college-level statistics course from an accredited university or a program approved by the Commission.

(iii) IAI Certification Requirement for Unaccredited Laboratory. All licensed latent print examination analysts and applicants who are not employed by a laboratory accredited by the Commission must [are] (1) [required to] be certified by the International Association for Identification (IAI) under the IAI's Latent Print Certification program and are required to provide proof of certification upon request and [. Licensees are required to] notify the Commission of any change in the status of their IAI certification within ten (10) business days of any changes; or (2) successfully complete a competency exam administered by the Texas Division of the International Association for Identification or a proctor approved by the Commission.

(D) Digital/Multimedia Evidence Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in digital/multimedia evidence must have a three-semester credit hour (or equivalent) college-level statistics course from an accredited university or a program approved by the Commission. No other specific college-level coursework is required.

(E) Crime Scene Processing Technician. An applicant for a forensic technician license in crime scene processing must successfully complete a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement Course Number 2106 titled Intermediate Crime Scene Search taught by a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement-certified instructor or subject matter expert approved by the Commission.

(F) Crime Scene Investigation Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in crime scene investigation must successfully complete a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement Course Number 2106 titled Intermediate Crime Scene Search taught by a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement-certified instructor or subject matter expert approved by the Commission and must complete a minimum of 240 hours of forensic-related training courses which may include in-house mentorship training.

(G) Crime Scene Reconstruction Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in crime scene reconstruction must have twelve-semester credit hours of college-level courses or equivalent coursework approved by the Commission that includes fluid dynamics, math, and physics; a 40-hour crime scene reconstruction course approved by the Commission; 440 additional hours of forensic-related courses approved by the Commission which may include documented in-house mentorship programs; and have successfully completed a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement Course Number 2106 titled Intermediate Crime Scene Search taught by a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement-certified instructor or subject matter expert approved by the Commission.

(H) Crime Scene Reconstruction Analyst, with specific recognition in bloodstain pattern analysis. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in crime scene reconstruction, with specific recognition in bloodstain pattern analysis, must have a 40-hour crime scene reconstruction course approved by the commission, two 40-hour advanced courses taught by two different instructors in blood pattern analysis with syllabi accepted by the International Association of Bloodstain Pattern Analysts (IABPA) or the International Association for Identification (IAI) for certification, a 40-hour fluid dynamics course approved by the Commission, a 40-hour math and physics course approved by the Commission, twenty-four hours of instruction involving presentation and preparation of demonstrative evidence such as 3D modeling, courtroom demonstratives, 440 additional hours of forensic-related courses approved by the Commission which may include documented in-house mentorship programs, and have successfully completed a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement Course Number 2106 titled Intermediate Crime Scene Search taught by a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement-certified instructor or subject matter expert approved by the Commission.

(I) Crime Scene Reconstruction Analyst, with specific recognition in shooting incident reconstruction and crime scene reconstruction. An application for a forensic analyst license in crime scene reconstruction, with specific recognition in shooting incident reconstruction must have a 40-hour crime scene reconstruction course approved by the commission, two 40-hour shooting incident reconstruction courses taught by two different instructors in shooting incident reconstruction with syllabi accepted by the International Association for Identification (IAI), the Association of Firearm and Toolmark Examiners (AFTE), or the Association for Crime Scene Reconstruction (ACSR) for certification and approved by the Commission, twenty-four hours of instruction involving presentation and preparation of demonstrative evidence such as 3D modeling and courtroom demonstratives, 440 additional hours of forensic-related courses approved by the Commission which may include documented in-house mentorship programs, and have successfully completed a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement Course Number 2106 titled Intermediate Crime Scene Search taught by a Texas Commission on Law Enforcement-certified instructor or subject matter expert approved by the Commission.

(3) Exemptions from Specific Coursework Requirements.

(A) Previously Licensed Document Examination Analyst Exemption. An applicant for a voluntary forensic analyst license previously licensed by the Commission when licensure was mandatory for the discipline is exempt from any specific coursework requirements in this subsection.

(B) An applicant for the technician license category of any forensic discipline set forth in this subchapter is not required to fulfill any specific college-level coursework requirements, including the three-semester credit hour (or equivalent) college-level statistics course component for licensure.

(C) An applicant for a forensic analyst license limited to the crime scene investigation analyst category of licensure is not required to fulfill the three-semester credit hour (or equivalent) college-level statistics course component for licensure.

(g) Work Experience.

(1) Crime Scene Reconstruction Analyst. An applicant for any forensic analyst license in crime scene reconstruction must have a minimum of five years' experience working in crime scene settings.

(2) Crime Scene Investigation Analyst. An applicant for a forensic analyst license in crime scene investigation must have a minimum of one year of experience working in crime scene settings.

(h) General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam Requirement.

(1) Exam Requirement. An applicant for a forensic analyst license under this section must pass the General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam administered by the Commission.

(A) An applicant is required to take and pass the General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam one time.

(B) An applicant may take the General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam no more than three times. If an applicant fails the General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam three times, the applicant has thirty (30) days from the date the applicant receives notice of the failure to request special dispensation from the Commission as described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph. Where special dispensation is granted, the applicant has 90 days from the date he or she receives notice the request for exam is granted to successfully complete the exam requirement. However, for good cause shown, the Commission or its Designee at its discretion may waive this limitation.

(C) Requests for Exam. If an applicant fails the General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam three times, the applicant must request in writing special dispensation from the Commission to take the exam more than three times. Applicants may submit a letter of support from their employing agency's director or licensing representative and any other supporting documentation supplemental to the written request.

(D) If an applicant sits for the General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam more than three times, the applicant must pay a $50 exam fee each additional time the applicant sits for the exam beyond the three initial attempts.

(E) Modified General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam. Forensic Technicians in any disciplines set forth in this subchapter, including latent print processing technicians, crime scene processing technicians and crime scene investigation analysts, may fulfill the General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam requirement by taking a modified exam administered by the Commission.

(2) Credit for Pilot Exam. If an individual passes a Pilot General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam, regardless of his or her eligibility status for a voluntary or mandatory Forensic Analyst License at the time the exam is taken, the candidate has fulfilled the General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam Requirement of this subsection.

(i) Continuing Education Requirements. All continuing education requirements outlined in §651.208 (g)-(i) of this subchapter (relating to Forensic Analyst and Forensic Technician License Renewal) apply to this section.

(j) Proficiency Monitoring Requirement.

(1) Requirement for Applicants Employed by an Accredited Laboratory. An applicant who is employed by an accredited laboratory must demonstrate the applicant participates in the laboratory's process for intra-agency comparison, interagency comparison, proficiency testing, or observation-based performance monitoring requirements in compliance with and on the timeline set forth by the laboratory's accrediting body's proficiency monitoring requirements as applicable to the Forensic Analyst's or Forensic Technician's specific forensic discipline and job duties.

(2) Requirement for Applicants Not Employed at an Accredited Laboratory or at an Accredited Laboratory in an Unaccredited Forensic Discipline. An applicant who is employed by an entity other than an accredited laboratory or performs a forensic examination or test at an accredited laboratory in a forensic discipline not covered by the scope of the laboratory's accreditation must demonstrate the applicant participates in the laboratory or employing entity's process for intra-agency comparison, interagency comparison, proficiency testing, or observation-based performance monitoring requirements in compliance with and on the timeline set forth by the laboratory or employing entity's Commission-approved process for proficiency monitoring as applicable to the Forensic Analyst's or Forensic Technician's specific forensic discipline and job duties.

(3) A signed certification by the laboratory or entity's authorized representative that the applicant has satisfied the applicable proficiency monitoring requirements, including any intra- agency comparison, inter-laboratory comparisons, proficiency testing, or observation-based performance monitoring requirements in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection as of the date of the analyst's application must be provided on the Proficiency Monitoring Certification form provided by the Commission. The licensee's authorized representative must designate the specific forensic discipline in which the Forensic Analyst or Forensic Technician actively performs forensic casework or is currently authorized to perform supervised or independent casework.

(4) Applicants employed by an entity other than an accredited laboratory or performing forensic examinations or tests at an accredited laboratory in a discipline not covered by the scope of the laboratory or employing entity's accreditation must include written proof of the Forensic Science Commission's approval described in (5) of this subsection with the Proficiency Monitoring Certification form required in (3) of this subsection. The applicant must include written documentation of performance in conformance with expected consensus results for the laboratory or employing entity's Commission-approved activities or exercise(s) as applicable to the applicant's specific forensic discipline and job duties in compliance with and on the timeline set forth by the laboratory or employing entity's Commission-approved process for proficiency monitoring.

(5) Applicants employed by an entity other than an accredited laboratory or performing forensic examinations or tests at an accredited laboratory in a discipline not covered by the scope of the laboratory or employing entity's accreditation seeking approval of proficiency monitoring activities or exercise(s) must seek prior approval of the activities or exercise(s) from the Commission.

(6) Special Proficiency Testing Requirements for Latent Print Analysts and Latent Print Processing Technicians.

(A) Where available and appropriate for the job function(s) being tested, proficiency tests shall be obtained from an external source through participation in a proficiency testing program offered by a provider accredited to the ISO/IEC 17043 international standard.

(B) Where not available or not appropriate for the job function(s) being tested, proficiency tests may be obtained from an external source through participation in an interagency comparison or developed internally by the employing laboratory or entity through participation in an interagency comparison or intra-agency comparison.

(C) All latent print examiner and latent print processing technician proficiency tests selected shall be developed and validated in accordance with the requirements set forth in Sections 4.2 and 4.3 of the Organization of Scientific Area Committees for Forensic Science (OSAC) 2022-S-0012 Friction Ridge Subcommittee's Standard for Proficiency Testing in Friction Ridge Examination.

(7) Special Proficiency Testing Requirements for Crime Scene Processing Technicians, Crime Scene Investigation Analysts, and Crime Scene Reconstruction Analysts.

(A) Where available and appropriate for the job function(s) being tested, proficiency tests shall be obtained from an external source through participation in a proficiency testing program offered by a provider accredited to the ISO/IEC 17043 international standard.

(B) Where not available or not appropriate for the job function(s) being tested, proficiency tests may be obtained from an external source through participation in an interagency comparison or developed internally by the employing laboratory or entity through participation in an interagency comparison or intra-agency comparison.

(k) Employing Laboratory or Agency Quality Requirement for Forensic Analysts. Applicants for a forensic analyst license under this section must be employed by a laboratory or agency that can demonstrate, regardless of Commission accreditation status, compliance with specific standards as applicable to the applicant's forensic discipline as published on the Commission's website and updated January 15 of each calendar year.

(l) License Term and Fee.

(1) A Forensic Analyst license issued under this section shall expire two years from the date the applicant is granted a license.

(2) Application Fee. A Forensic Analyst or Forensic Technician license applicant or current licensee under this section shall pay the following fee(s) as applicable:

(A) Initial Application fee of $220 for Analysts and $150 for Technicians;

(B) Biennial renewal fee of $200 for Analysts and $130 for Technicians;

(C) License Reinstatement fee of $220; or

(D) Special Exam Fee of $50 for General Forensic Analyst Licensing Exam, required only if testing beyond the three initial attempts.

(m) Forensic Analyst License Renewal. Applicants for renewal of a Forensic Analyst License must comply with §651.208 of this subchapter (Forensic Analyst and Forensic Technician License Renewal).

(n) Forensic Analyst License Expiration and Reinstatement. A Forensic Analyst must comply with §651.209 of this subchapter (Forensic Analyst and Forensic Technician License Expiration and Reinstatement) of this subchapter.

(o) Procedure for Denial of Initial Application or Renewal Application and Reconsideration.

(1) Application Review. The Commission Director or Designee must review each initial application or renewal application and determine whether the applicant meets the qualifications and requirements set forth in this subchapter. If a person who has applied for a forensic analyst license under this section does not meet the qualifications or requirements set forth in this subchapter and has submitted a complete application, the Director or Designee must consult with members of the Licensing Advisory Committee before denying the application.

(2) Denial of Application. The Commission, through its Director or Designee, may deny an initial or renewal application if the applicant fails to meet any of the qualifications or requirements set forth in this subchapter.

(3) Notice of Denial. The Commission, through its Director or Designee, shall provide the applicant a written statement of the reason(s) for denial of the initial or renewal application.

(4) Request for Reconsideration. Within twenty (20) days of the date of the notice that the Commission has denied the application, the applicant may request that the Commission reconsider the denial. The request must be in writing, identify each point or matter about which reconsideration is requested, and set forth the grounds for the request for reconsideration.

(5) Reconsideration Procedure. The Commission must consider a request for reconsideration at its next meeting where the applicant may appear and present testimony.

(6) Commission Action on Request. After reconsidering its decision, the Commission may either affirm or reverse its original decision.

(7) Final Decision. The Commission, through its Director or Designee, must notify the applicant in writing of its decision on reconsideration within fifteen (15) business days of the date of its meeting where the final decision was rendered

The agency certifies that legal counsel has reviewed the proposal and found it to be within the state agency's legal authority to adopt.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on August 18, 2025.

TRD-202502958

Leigh Tomlin

Associate General Counsel

Texas Forensic Science Commission

Earliest possible date of adoption: September 28, 2025

For further information, please call: (512) 936-0661